CAPTAIN TALKZ

HSST ZOOLOGY MODEL EXAM 7



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HSST ZOOLOGY MODEL EXAM 7

🟥 NUMBER OF QUESTIONS : 100

🟥 TIME : 1.30 HOURS

1 / 100

1) The first page of the research report

2 / 100

2) Failure to Acknowledge the borrowed material is called (Take and use of others as one's own)

3 / 100

3) A blueprint of Research work is called

4 / 100

4) The original source from which researcher collects information is

5 / 100

5)

Source of Data collected and compiled by others is called
-
-
-
-

6 / 100

6) Readymade and Readily available data is

7 / 100

7) The way or mode of gathering data is

8 / 100

8) An instrument used in Methodis called

9 / 100

9) Camera, tape recorder, videotape etc. are........ devices of observation

10 / 100

10) Sample value is called

11 / 100

In a suspected case of food adulteration, forensic analysis revealed the presence of
a large number of nucleated RBCs in a sample of mutton. The adulteration could
have been done with meat from
A) Dogs

11) B) Buffalo

C) Cow

D) Camel

12 / 100

In an attempt to distinguish and classify two species under the same genus, a
researcher carried out a PCR and obtained two identical amplified bands. Which
among the following should he choose to further distinguish the two species using
the two identical bands?
A) RT-PCR

12) B) RFLP

C) ELISA

D) Western blot analysis

13 / 100

Which among the following is/are true when prokaryotes and eukaryotes are
considered?
1. Single origin of replication in prokaryotes as opposed to multiple origins in eukaryotes.
2. In prokaryotes since there is no mitochondria, energy production is dependent solely on fermentation pathways.
3. Fermentation pathways for energy production is seen in prokaryotes while it is absent in eukaryotes.
4. In prokaryotes, translation starts simultaneously with transcription, while in eukaryotes translation is preceded by RNA processing.
A) 1, 2 and 3 only

13) B) 2, 3 and 4 only

C) 1 and 4 only

D) 1, 2, 3 and 4.

14 / 100

The DNA sequence of choice opted by COBOL for molecular classification of eukaryote animals is
A) Cyclooxygenase

14) B) Cytochrome oxidase

C) 16s RNA

D) X chromosome

15 / 100

15)

Choose the correct order of procedures in DNA profiling
A) DNA isolation PCR amplification restriction digestion electrophoresis southern blotting autoradiography DNA pattern
analysis
B) DNA isolation restriction digestion PCR amplification electrophoresis southern blotting autoradiography DNA
pattern analysis
C) DNA isolation restriction digestion PCR amplification autoradiography southern blotting electrophoresis DNA pattern analysis
D) DNA isolation restriction digestion southern blotting electrophoresis PCR amplification autoradiography DNA pattern analysis

16 / 100

The scientific name of the great Indian hornbill is
A) Ardeotis nigriceps

16) B) Bos indicus

C) Buceros bicornis

D) Ocyceros birostris

17 / 100

In the experiments as designed by Craig Mello and Andrew Fire, crossing of red
flowering petunias and white flowering petunias produced mottled flowers with
red and white spots. This is a result of
1. Post-transcriptional regulation of gene expression.
2. RNA interference.
3. Co-dominance.
A) 1 only

17) B) 2 only

C) 1 and 2 only

D) 3 only

18 / 100

The different types of gametes produced by an organism with genotype Qq, Rr
and Tt is
A) 7

18) B) 8

C) 9

D) 16

19 / 100

19)

The amphibian discovered in the Western Ghats and considered to be a biological
proof showing that Sri Lanka was once part of the Indian subcontinent is
A) Rana (Euphlyctis) hexadactyla
B) Bufo sp
C) Nasikabatrachus sp
D) Rhacophorus malabaricus

20 / 100

20)

The theory of Pangenesis
A) Was put forward by Darwin and suggested that a miniature homunculus resides in the sperm or eggs.
B) Was put forward by Swammerdam and Malpighi who suggested that a miniature ‘homunculus’ resides in the sperm or eggs.
C) Was put forward by Darwin and suggested that gemmules from all parts of the body collect in the gonads to form gametes.
D) Was put forward by Aristotle who suggested that females release an inert fluid to which life is given by the ‘vitalising’ fluid from the male.

21 / 100

An example(s) for a sexually transmitted bacterial disease is
1. Chlamydia 2. AIDS 3. Treponema 4. Yersinia
A) 1, 2, 3 and 4

21) B) 2 only

C) 1, 3 and 4 only

D) 1 and 3 only

22 / 100

22)

A successful treatment for SCID syndrome by gene therapy involved the
correction of the defects in the
A) Adenosine de-aminase gene involving the salvage of nucleotides.
B) Ornithine tricarboxylic acid gene involving the metabolism of nucleotides.
C) Purine metabolism that results in the formation of uric acid crystals and gout.
D) None of the above because SCID is a disease of the immune system and is
not affected genes for nucleotide metabolism.

23 / 100

23)

The vectors that transmit 1). Wuchereria bancroftii is -------; 2). leishmaniasis is
---------; and 3). Dengue fever is ---------.
A) 1). Culex quinquefasciatus. 2). Glossina palpalis and 3). Armigeres
subaltus.
B) 1). Culex quinquefasciatus, 2). Tabanus eggeri, and 3). Anopheles
stephensi.
C) 1). Culex quinquefasciatus, 2). Phlebotomus papatasi and 3). Aedes
aegypti.
D) 1). Aedes aegypti, 2). Tabanus eggeri, and 3). Xenopsylla cheopis.

24 / 100

24)

Statement 1. Utilisation of lactose which is present in the medium by E. coli in the
absence of glucose is an example of enzyme induction.
Statement 2. Utilisation of tryptophan which is present in the medium by E. coli
provides an example of enzyme suppression.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Statement 1 is true but statement 2 is false because utilisation of
tryptophan induces the genes for tryp operon system.
C) Both statements are false because E. coli cannot utilise lactose or
tryptophan.
D) Statement 1 is false because bacteria that utilise lactose are Lactobacillus
species and not E. coli; but statement 2 is true.

25 / 100

When a virus enters a cell but does not replicate immediately, the situation is
called
A) lysogeny

25) B) fermentation

C) symbiosis

D) synergism

26 / 100

26)

The origin of bioinformatics as a science began with the efforts of a
mathematician who consolidated the sequence data of proteins available at that
time and used a computer network to make it available to interested users. The
name of that person, the network and the protein resource are respectively:
A) Richard Stallman, INTERNET and GEN bank
B) Margaret Dayhoff, NCBI and SWISS-PROT
C) Paul Hebert, COBOL and EMBL
D) Margaret Dayhoff, ARPANET and Protein Information Resource

27 / 100

27)

Assertion: In bioinformatics, a curated database is one in which the submissions
are evaluated by experts before making them available in the public domain.
Condition: Submission to a curated database requires empirical authentication.
A) Both assertion and the condition are correct and the condition supplements
the assertion.
B) The assertion is correct but the condition does not supplement the
assertion.
C) Both assertion and the condition given are incorrect.
D) All bioinformatics databases are curated and hence the assertion and the
condition are not sustainable.

28 / 100

A cross between FI hybrid and a recessive parent gives the ratio of
A) 3:1

28) B) 2:1

C) 1:1

D) 4:1

29 / 100

Which among the following are suited for raft culture?
A) Pinctada fucata

29) B) Ostrea edulis

C) Perna virdis

D) Chanos chanos

30 / 100

The genetically modified fish that was patented and trademarked was engineered
from
A) Poecilia reticulate

30) B) Puntius denisoni

C) Carassius auratus

D) Danio rerio

31 / 100

31)

Statement 1. Microsatellites are those extensions seen at the extreme ends of
chromosomes.
Statement 2. Microsatellites are those bands of DNA seen when chromosomal
DNA is resolved by ultra centrifugation.
A) Statement 1 is correct while statement 2 is wrong.
B) Statement 1 is wrong while statement 2 is correct.
C) Both statements are wrong.
D) Both statements are correct.

32 / 100

32)

The expression of the agouti gene is an example of
A) Epigenetic influence on gene expression.
B) Post-translational modifications of proteins.
C) Transposable genes.
D) Post transcriptional regulation of gene expression.

33 / 100

33)

The site from where the oldest australopithecines, paranthropoids, and early
humans have been recovered is
A) Shaanxi in China.
B) Olduvai Gorge in East Africa.
C) Swartkrans cave in South Africa.
D) Java in South-East Asia.

34 / 100

Coelomates that develop with the blastopore becoming the mouth are called
A) Protostomes

34) B) Deuterostomes

C) Microstomes

D) Blastostomes.

35 / 100

In what form does the product of glycolysis enter the TCA cycle?
A) Pyruvate

35) B) Pyruvic acid

C) Acetyl Co A

D) Acetate

36 / 100

36)

Tight junctions between the cells of the intestinal tissue ensures that
A) Glucose enters the blood stream across the cell membrane of the intestinal
cells and lipids enter through the inter-cellular spaces.
B) Lipids enter the blood stream across the cell membrane of the intestinal
cells and glucose enters through the inter-cellular spaces.
C) Both glucose and lipids enter the blood stream across the cell membrane.
D) Entry of glucose into the cells even if the glut transporter system fails.

37 / 100

37)

The occurrence of ‘chaakara’ (mud bank) in the coasts of Alleppey in Kerala is
favoured by
A) The phenomenon of upwelling and the layout of the continental shelf.
B) Enhanced and copious flow of water into the estuarine area due to the S.W. monsoon, attracting the marine organisms.
C) Rough seas during the monsoons causing ecological changes that bring the organisms to the sea shore.
D) Organisms moving into the continental shelf and littoral zones for
breeding.

38 / 100

The limitations of the Beer-Lambert’s law tends to make the OD vs concentration
graph
A) Sigmoidal

38) B) Straight line

C) Curvilinear

D) Bimodal

39 / 100

39)

The synsacrum as seen in birds and is formed by the fusion of
A) All lumbar vertebrae, all sacral vertebrae and a few caudal vertebrae.
B) All sacral vertebrae and a few caudal vertebrae.
C) Sacral vertebrae.
D) The last thoracic vertebra, all lumbar vertebrae, all sacral vertebrae and a
few caudal vertebrae.

40 / 100

40)

A high-powered microscope that produces an image from scattered secondary
electrons
A) Immunofluorescence microscope.
B) Bright-field light microscope.
C) Transmission electron microscope.
D) Scanning electron microscope.

41 / 100

Dietary fats after absorption appear in the circulation as
A) HDL

41) B) VLDL

C) LDL

D) Chylomicron

42 / 100

42)

The human placenta is recognized as:
A) Haemochorial ; monodiscoidal; deciduous and with interstitial
implantation
B) Epitheliochorial; non-deciduous; monodiscoidal; cotylydonary, with
superficial implantation.
C) Haemochorial; contradeciduos; Monodiscoidal; zonary; with eccentric
implantation.
D) Endotheliochorial; non-deciduous; diffuse; with superficial implantation.

43 / 100

For glycogenesis, glucose should be converted to
A) Glucuronic acid

43) B) Pyruvic acid

C) UDP glucose

D) Sorbitol

44 / 100

For glycogenesis, glucose should be converted to
A) Glucuronic acid

44) B) Pyruvic acid

C) UDP glucose

D) Sorbitol

45 / 100

45)

Pick out the most correct statement with regard to the control of the level of
glucose in the blood
A) Insulin is produced by the alpha cells of the islets of Langerhans, while
glucagon is suppressed by the alpha cells.
B) Insulin boosts the absorption and catabolism of glucose in RBCs while it
elevates the absorption and conversion of glucose to glycogen in
hepatocytes.
C) Insulin is produced by the crypts of Lieburkin present in the pancreas in
response to abnormal levels of glucose in the blood.
D) Glucagon secreted from the crypts of Lieburkin and insulin produced by
the islets of Langerhans work antagonistically to regulate glucose levels.

46 / 100

Classification based on quantitative analysis of physical traits and evolutionary
relationships is
A) Numerical classification

46) B) Molecular classification

C) Cladistics

D) Phylogenetics

47 / 100

47)

In human kidney, podocytes are present in
A) Proximal convoluted tubule
B) Distal convoluted tubule
C) Collecting tubule
D) Bowman’s capsule

48 / 100

48)

In the development of the teeth,
A) The enamel is derived from the ectoderm while the rest of the tooth from
the mesenchyme.
B) The enamel is derived from the underlying bone while the pulp and
associated structures are formed from the marrow.
C) The enamel is derived from the mesenchyme while the rest of the tooth
from the ectoderm.
D) The dentine is derived from the underlying bone while the enamel and
associated structures are formed from the mesoderm.

49 / 100

The first genetically modified organism to be granted a patent was the ‘Super
bug’. It was modified from
A) Escherichia coli

49) B) Acetobacter xylinium

C) Pseudomonas putida

D) Rhizobium leguminosarum

50 / 100

50) if inheritance of disease to next generation is only possible through females, the probable inheritance is

51 / 100

The poriferan that harbours a pair of crustaceans throughout its lifetime in its
spongocoel is
A) Clathrina

51) B) Euplectella

C) Cliona

D) Spongilla

52 / 100

52)

Antisense RNA is an example of
A) Regulation of gene expression by viruses.
B) Post translational gene regulation.
C) Post transcriptional gene regulation.
D) All of the above.

53 / 100

53)

The evolution of the genetic code has been described as a ‘frozen accident’ by
A) Hargobind Khorana.
B) James Watson.
C) Francis Crick.
D) James Watson, Francis Crick and Maurice Wilkins

54 / 100

54)

Lipinski’s rule of five deals with
A) Criteria for the insilico selection of potential drug candidates.
B) Criteria for the computational prediction of structure of proteins.
C) Rules for the submission of nucleotide sequence to the GEN bank.
D) Law of limitations.

55 / 100

55)

Which among the following is correct?
A) ‘NCBI’ stands for National Centre for Bio Informatics, situated at
New Delhi
B) ‘NCBI’ stands for National Centre for Biotechnology Information, situated
at New Delhi.
C) ‘NCBI’ stands for National Centre for Bio Informatics, situated in the USA.
D) ‘NCBI’ stands for National Centre for Biotechnology Information, in the USA.

56 / 100

Chemical messenger used for communication between individuals of same species
A) Hormone

56) B) Enzymes

C) Pheromone

D) Neurotransmitter

57 / 100

Which animal is the symbol of WWF?
A) Zebra

57) B) Giant Panda

C) Red Panda

D) Opossum

58 / 100

The fish that is asphyxiated if prevented from gulping air is
A Harpadon nehereus

58) B) Scoliodon

C) Anabas testudineus

D) Glyphis gangeticus

59 / 100

59)

In biotechnology the process of transforming a bacterial cell, the rupture and resealing of the plasma membrane is facilitated by
A) Manipulating the concentration of NaCl in the transforming medium.
B) Manipulating the concentration of ZnCl2 in the transforming medium.
C) Manipulating the concentration of CaCl2 in the transforming medium.
D) By providing lactose in the medium to induce the lac operon

60 / 100

Minamata disease is caused by
A) Mercury

60) B) Lead

C) Titanium

D) Arsenic

61 / 100

Minamata disease is caused by
A) Mercury

61) B) Lead

C) Titanium

D) Arsenic

62 / 100

Organisms having the potential for interbreeding and producing fertile offspring
belong to a:
A) Population

62) B) Genus

C) Species

D) Family

63 / 100

The type of population change with a sudden exponential increase followed by a
sudden decline is known as
A) Ecesis

63) B) Eruptive

C) Irruptive

D) Disruptive

64 / 100

The concept of ecological pyramid was coined by
A) AG Tansely

64) B) EP Odum

C) Charles Eaton

D) Balinsky

65 / 100

Energy flow in an ecosystem is
A) Unidirectional

65) B) Bidirectional

C) Multidirectional

D) Semidirectional

66 / 100

Which among the following is a characteristic feature of the zika virus?
1. Antibodies from an infected mother cross the placenta and cause
microcephaly
2. It crosses the placenta and causes microcephaly in the foetus.
3. It is a single stranded flavivirus transmitted by the Aedes mosquito.
4. It is a retrovirus transmitted by Aedes mosquitoes.
A) 1 and 4 only

66) B) 2 and 3 only

C) 1 and 3 only

D) 2 and 4 only

67 / 100

The phenomenon in which a single gene influences multiple traits is termed
A) Multigene effect

67) B) Polyploidy

C) Pleotropy

D) Polycistronic

68 / 100

The limit to which the number of times a normal cell can be induced to divide
in vitro is
A) Ame’s limit

68) B) Limit of totipotency

C) Hayflick limit

D) LD 100

69 / 100

The frequency of expression of an allele in a population is called
A) Allelomorph

69) B) Phenotypic ratio

C) Genotypic ratio

D) Penetrance

70 / 100

70)

Which of the following combination of chemicals was used in Miller’s experiment?
A) Methane, Oxygen, Ammonia and Water vapour
B) Nitrogen, Hydrogen, Ammonia and Water vapour
C) Hydrogen, CO2, Ammonia and Oxygen
D) Methane, Hydrogen, Ammonia and Water vapour

71 / 100

71)

Founder Effect is an example of
A) Genetic drift seen in an isolated population.
B) Occurrence of new genes in the general population.
C) Occurrence of mutations in the general population.
D) Introduction of new genes by migration between populations.

72 / 100

An example for an inherited disease involving defective nucleotide excision repair
mechanism is
A) Huntington’s chorea

72) B) Breast cancer

C) Abelson’s leukaemia

D) Xeroderma pigmentosum

73 / 100

Schwann cells are
A) Myeloid cells

73) B) Glial cells

C) Neuronal cells

D) Astroglia

74 / 100

74)

Platyhelminthes are best described as
A) Flat worms, triploblastic and acoelomate animals
B) Round worms, diploblastic and acoelomate animals
C) Round worms, triploblastic and coelomate animals
D) Flatworms, diploblastic and acoelomate animals

75 / 100

75)

With respect to the human eye,
1. Myopia is a condition in which the rays focused by the lens of the eye fall short of the retina.
2. Myopia is a condition in which the rays focused by the lens of the eye fall beyond the retina.
3. Nictalopia is a condition in which regeneration of rhodopsin is impaired.
A) Statements 2 and 3 are correct while statement 1 is wrong.
B) Statement 1 alone is correct while statements 2 and 3 are wrong.
C) Statements 1 and 3 are correct while statement 2 is wrong.
D) Statement 2 alone is correct while statements 1 and 3 are wrong.

76 / 100

76)

The following are diseases caused by autoimmune reactions. Identify the option in
which all the matches are correct.
A) (1). Myasthenia gravis – Myelin sheath; (2). Grave’s disease – TSH
receptor; (3). SLE – dsDNA; (4). Multiple sclerosis - Acetylcholine
receptors;
B) (1). Addison’s disease – Adrenal cells; (2). Goodpasture syndrome – TSH receptor; (3). Grave’s disease – Basement membrane; (4). Rheumatic fever – Cardiac valves.
C) (1). Hashimoto’s disease – Thyroid; (2). Rheumatoid arthritis – Collagen; (3). Myasthenia gravis – Myelin sheath; (4). SLE – RBCs.
D) (1). Myasthenia gravis – Acetylcholine receptors; (2). Grave’s disease – TSH receptor; (3). SLE – dsDNA; (4). Addison’s disease – Adrenal cells.

77 / 100

77)

Sea anemone is
A) Diploblastic and radially symmetrical
B) Triploblastic and radially symmetrical
C) Diploblastic and bilateraly symmetrical
D) Triploblastic and bilateraly symmetrical

78 / 100

78)

Select the group of organisms belonging to the same phylum
A) Sea pen, Sea fan, Sea anemone
B) Jelly fish, Gold fish, Silver fish
C) Sea mouse, Sea urchin, Sea lemon
D) Devil fish, Cray fish, Star fish

79 / 100

79)

Select the group of organisms belonging to the same phylum
A) Sea pen, Sea fan, Sea anemone
B) Jelly fish, Gold fish, Silver fish
C) Sea mouse, Sea urchin, Sea lemon
D) Devil fish, Cray fish, Star fish

80 / 100

80)

The scientific community has categorized the Western Ghats in Kerala as a ‘Hot
Spot’ due to
A) The presence of a large number of endangered species.
B) Very high biological diversity of organisms.
C) Its location in a warm tropical climate and de-forestation which causes Green House Effects.
D) Origin and occurrence of a large number of hot and spicy plants and plant products such as pepper, ginger, chillies etc.

81 / 100

81)

A researcher working on a signal transduction system observed that the activation
of the receptor complex required one ligand molecule and two surface receptor
molecules. The type of signal transduction could be:
A) G protein coupled receptor pathway.
B) Tyrosine kinase receptor pathway.
C) Ras signalling pathway.
D) cAmp cascade.

82 / 100

The 2n chromosome number of Drosophila is
A) 16

82) B) 4

C) 12

D) 8

83 / 100

83)

Identify the correct sequence of metabolites as seen in the Kreb’s cycle.
A) Acetyl co-A, citrate, isocitrate, α ketoglutarate, fumarate, malate,
succinate, oxaloacetate.
B) Acetyl co-A, citrate, isocitrate, α ketoglutarate, succinate, fumarate,
malate, oxaloacetate.
C) Acetyl co-A, isocitrate, citrate, α ketoglutarate, succinate, malate,
fumarate, oxaloacetate.
D) Acetyl co-A, citrate, isocitrate, succinate, α ketoglutarate, fumarate,
malate, oxaloacetate, NADH.

84 / 100

84)

The instantaneous effect of cyanide poison is due to its effect on
A) The nervous system
B) The cardiac vascular system
C) The electron transport chain
D) The muscular system

85 / 100

Feathers without interlocking hooks is a characteristic feature of
A) Odontognathae

85) B) Neognathae

C) Ratites

D) Impennae

86 / 100

86)

Cold sterilisation refers to
A) Sterilisation by Radioactive irradiation.
B) Ultra freezing of food materials to kill bacteria in food for human use.
C) Cryopreservation of food materials.
D) Freeze drying of food materials.

87 / 100

87)

Choose the best option from those given below to explain the condition in which
erythroblasotsis foetalis occurs.
A) Incompatible blood groups of the parents.
B) Rh positive mother and Rh negative father.
C) Rh negative mother and Rh positive father.
D) Rh negative mother and Rh positive foetus.

88 / 100

In frog,
1. The 8th vertebra is amphicoelus while the 9th vertebra is biconvex
2. The 8th vertebra is biconvex while the 9th vertebra is amphicoelus
3. Both 8th and 9th are amphicoelus
4. The typical vertebra is procoelus
A) 1 is true

88) B) 2 is true

C) 1 and 4 are true

D) 3 and 4 are true

89 / 100

In frog,
1. The 8th vertebra is amphicoelus while the 9th vertebra is biconvex
2. The 8th vertebra is biconvex while the 9th vertebra is amphicoelus
3. Both 8th and 9th are amphicoelus
4. The typical vertebra is procoelus
A) 1 is true

89) B) 2 is true

C) 1 and 4 are true

D) 3 and 4 are true

90 / 100

During the process of researching the taxonomy of a specimen, a taxonomis tobserved the characteristic features such as a dorsal tubular central nervous system, notochord confined to the tail region, spicules, reversal of vascular circulation and retrogressive  metamorphosis. The specimen may be that of
A) Ascidians

90) B) Sporozoans

C) Hydrozoans

D) Branchiostoma

91 / 100

91) The function of collateral glands of Cockroach is

A) Secretion of Ootheca

B) Help in fertilization

C) Secretion of cuticle

D) Spermatophore formation

92 / 100

92) An example for a monoestrus animal is

A) Bears

B) Kangaroo

C) Cattle

D) Primates

93 / 100

93) Which among the following is not a genetic disease?

A) Sickle cell anaemia

B) Haemophilia

C) Down’s syndrome

D) Rubella

94 / 100

94) What is the genetic material in influenza virus?

A) Double helical DNA

B) RNA

C) Single helix DNA

D) SnRNA

95 / 100

95) The respiratory pigment seen in crustacea is

A) Haemoglobin

B) Vanadium

C) Haemocyanin

D) Chlorocruorin

96 / 100

96) The counter current system

A) Ensures that no solute moves across the system.

B) Enables the maintenance of a constant osmotic gradient across opposing fluid movements.

C) Requires an active energy intensive system to keep a constant osmotic gradient.

D) All of the above

97 / 100

97) Reduced secretion of aldosterone leads to

A) Tay Sach’s disease

B) Hashimoto’s disease

C) Addison’s disease

D) Down’s syndrome

98 / 100

98) Consider the following statements and choose the best option

Statement 1: The level of Calcium ions in the extracellular fluid (ECF) is much higher than the cytosol

Statement 2: Influx of Calcium ions from the ECF into the neuron is an essential component of synaptic transmission

A) Statement 1 is true but statement 2 is false.

B) Statement 1 is false but statement 2 is true.

C) Both statements are true, and statement 2 is an effect related to statement1.

D) Both statements are true, but are independent.

99 / 100

99) Which among the following can be corrected by administration of ascorbic acid?

A) Scurvy

B) Phenylketonurea

C) Xerophthalmia

D) Spina bifida

100 / 100

100) In a directory of members of a residence association, the following data on blood groups were recorded. Which among them cannot be correct?

1. Family No. 1. Father O+, Mother O-, Son O-, Daughter O-.

2. Family No. 2. Father AB+, Mother O-, Son O-, Daughter O-.

3. Family No. 3. Father A+, Mother O+, Son O+, Daughter O-.

4. Family No. 4. Father A+, Mother B-, Son O+, Daughter O-.

A) 1 & 2 only

B) 2 & 3 only

C) 2 only

D) 4 only

Your score is

The average score is 34%

0%



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