INDIAN POLITY MOCK TEST : 4

CAPTAIN TALKZ

INDIAN POLITY MOCK TEST : 4

Indian Polity Mock Test

About This Mock Test

🟥 TOPIC : INDIAN POLITY 4

🟥 NUMBER OF QUESTIONS : 25

🟥 TIME : 20 MINS

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POLITY 4

🟥 QUESTIONS : 25

🟥 TIME : 20 MINS

1 / 25

1) The basic structure theory of the Constitution of India implies that

A) certain features of the Constitution are so essential to it that they cannot be abrogated

B) fundamental rights cannot be abridged or taken away

C) the Constitution cannot be amended except in accordance with the procedure prescribed in Art. 368

D) the Preamble of the Constitution cannot be amended for it is not part of the Constitution and at the same time represents its real spirit

2 / 25

2) Who among the following are appointed by the President of India?

1. The Chairman, Finance Commission

2. The Deputy Chairman, Planning Commission

3. The Chief Minister of a Union Territory

Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:

A) 1 only

B) 1 and 2 only

C) 1 and 3 only

D) 2 and 3 only

3 / 25

3) Which one of the following determines that the Indian Constitution is federal?

A) A written and rigid Constitution

B) An independent Judiciary

C) Vesting of residuary powers with the Centre

D) Distribution of powers between the Centre and the States

4 / 25

4) Which of the following taxes is/are levied by the Union and collected and appropriated by the States?

A) Stamp duties

B) Passenger and goods tax

C) Estate duty

D) Taxes on Newspapers

5 / 25

5) Which of the following electoral systems have been adopted for various elections in India?

1. System of direct election on the basis of adult suffrage

2. System of proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote

3. List system of proportional representation

4. Cumulative system of indirect elections

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

A) 1 and 2

B) 1 and 3

C) 1, 2 and 3

D) 2, 3 and 4

6 / 25

6) Which of the following is/are among the functions of the Election Commission of India?

1. Conduct of election for the posts of the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker, Lok Sabha and the Deputy Chairman, Rajya Sabha

2. Conduct of election to the Corporations and Municipalities

3. Deciding on all doubts and disputes arising out of elections

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

A) 1 and 2

B) 1 and 3

C) 2 and 3

D) None

7 / 25

7) Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R):

Assertion (A): In India, the political parties which formed the governments represented the majority of seats secured in the elections to the House of the People at the Centre and the Legislative Assemblies in the States but not the majority of votes.

Reason (R): The elections based on the majority-vote-system decide the result on the basis of relative majority of votes secured.

In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct?

A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

B) Both A and R are true, but R is not a correct explanation of A

C) A is true, but R is false

D) A is false, but R is true

8 / 25

8) Who among the following became the Prime Minister of India without being earlier the Chief Minister of a State?

1. Morarji Desai 2. Charan Singh 3. V.P. Singh 4. Chandrashekhar 5. P.V. Narasimha Rao

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

A) 1, 2 and 4

B) 2, 3 and 5

C) 2 only

D) 4 only

9 / 25

9) Which one of the following statements regarding ‘Exit Poll’ is correct?

A) ‘Exit Poll’ is a term used to denote a post-election survey of voters regarding the candidate in whose favour they had exercised their franchise

B) ‘Exit Poll’ and ‘Opinion Poll’ are one and the same

C) Exit Poll’ is device through which results of voting can be most exactly predicted

D) ‘Exit Poll’ is an administrative device made recently by the Chief Election Commissioner to prevent impersonation

10 / 25

10) In which respect have the Centre-State relations been specifically termed as ‘municipal relations’?

A) Centre’s control of the State in legislative sphere

B) Centre’s control of the State in financial matters

C) Centre’s control of the State in the administrative sector

D) Centre’s control of the State in the planning process

11 / 25

11) Freedom of the press in India

A) is specially provided in Article 19(1)(a) of the Constitution

B) is implied in the wider freedom of expression guaranteed by Article 19(1)(a) of the constitution

C) is guaranteed under the provisions of Article 361A of the Constitution

D) emanates from the operation of the Rule of Law in the country

12 / 25

12) Which one of the following statements is correct?

A) All the members of the Rajya Sabha are elected by State Legislative Assemblies

B) As the Vice-president is the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha, only a member of the Rajya Sabha can contest for the office of the Vice-president

C) A point of difference between the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha is that while a candidate to the Lok Sabha can contest from any State in India, a candidate to the Rajya Sabha should ordinarily be a resident of the State from where he is contesting

D) The Constitution of India explicitly prohibits the appointment of a nominated member of the Rajya Sabha to the post of a minister

13 / 25

13) Which of the following statements regarding the advisory jurisdiction of the Supreme Court are correct?

1. It is binding on the Supreme Court to give its opinion on any matter referred to it by the President.

2. The full bench of the Supreme Court hears any reference made to it under its power of advisory jurisdiction.

3. The opinion given by the Supreme Court on a reference under advisory jurisdiction is not binding on the government.

4. Not more than one reference at a time can be made to the Supreme Court under its power of advisory jurisdiction.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

A) 1 and 2

B) 1 and 3

C) 2 and 3

D) 2 and 4

14 / 25

14) Which of the following statements regarding the Constituent Assembly are true?

1. It was not based on adult franchise.

2. It resulted from direct elections.

3. It was a multi-party body.

4. It worked through several committees.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

A) 1 and 2

B) 2 and 3

C) 1 and 4

D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

15 / 25

15) Which one of the following is INCORRECT in respect of Parliamentary control over the Budget?

A) Parliament has no say in the preparation of the budget

B) Parliament has the power to increase expenditure charged on the Consolidated Fund

C) Parliament has no power to impose a tax without the President’s recommendation

D) Parliament has no power to increase a tax without the President’s recommendation

16 / 25

16) The Anti-Defection Law was enacted as early as 1979 in

A) Kerala

B) Jammu and Kashmir

C) West Bengal

D) Tamil Nadu

17 / 25

17) Which one of the following comes under the jurisdiction of both the High Court and the Supreme Court?

A) Disputes between the Centre and the States

B) Disputes between the inter state legislators

C) Protection of the Fundamental Rights

D) Protection against the violation of the Constitution

18 / 25

18) Which one of the following statements regarding the office of the Speaker is correct?

A) He holds office during the pleasure of the President

B) He need not be a member of the House at the time of his election but has to become a member of the House within six months from the date of his election.

C) He loses his office if the House is dissolved before the end of its normal tenure

D) If he intends to resign the letter of his resignation is to be addressed to the Deputy Speaker

19 / 25

19) Which one of the following is in the Concurrent List in the Constitution of India?

A) Population control and family planning

B) Public health and sanitation

C) Capitation taxes

D) Treasure trove

20 / 25

20) Which one of the following is a feature common to both the Indian Federation and the American Federation?

A) A single citizenship

B) Three lists in the Constitution

C) Dual judiciary

D) A federal supreme court to interpret the Constitution

21 / 25

21) Which one of the following statements is correct?

A) Neither the Finance Commission nor the Planning Commission is a constitutional body

B) The scope of the Finance Commission is limited to a review of the revenue segment of the budget while the Planning Commission takes an overall review embracing both capital and revenue requirements of the States

C) No one can be a member of both the Finance Commission and the Planning Commission at the same time

D) There is no overlapping of work and responsibility of the Finance Commission and those of the Planning Commission.

22 / 25

22) Among the four pairs given below which one consists of a correct combination of dignitaries who became Vice-Presidents after having held diplomatic posts like Ambassadors and High Commissioners?

A) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan and G.S. Pathak

B) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan and V.V. Giri

C) Dr. Zakir Hussain and K.R. Narayanan

D) B.D. Jatti and K.R. Narayanan

23 / 25

23) The abolition of the I.A.S. and the I.P.S. has been recommended by the

A) Dhebar Commission

B) Kalekar Commission

C) Kher Commission

D) Rajamannar Commission

24 / 25

24) The Chief Minister of a State in India is NOT eligible to vote in the Presidential election if

A) he himself is a candidate

B) he is yet to prove his majority on the floor of the Lower House of the State legislature

C) he is a member of the Upper House of the State Legislature

D) he is a caretaker Chief Minister

25 / 25

25) The only instance when the President of India exercised his power of veto related to

A) the Hindu Code Bill

B) the PEPSU Appropriation Bill

C) the Indian Post Office (Amendment) Bill

D) the Dowry Prohibition Bill

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INDIAN POLITY MOCK TEST : 4

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